NozDontKnowMyNamz asked: I know this might seem completely obvious, but I still want to know

What sets these two terms apart, I wouldn’t think they’re synonymous.
I have mild hearing loss at two specific frequency points. A loss doesn’t mean a complete absence at those points; I’m thinking that there must be a complete absence of sound in order to be classified as the latter… but how much and over how many frequency points?
Hi, thanks for your answer. But I wouldn’t necessarily agree with this comment, “but you have to have exceptional hearing to create or sing music professionally”
Brian Wilson is deaf in one ear, and many other working musicians today obviously have some hearing loss and tinnitus. In fact, it’s probably more common than we think.
I’m still not clear on it though. Some hearing loss is different from being partially deaf no?
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